0 like 0 dislike
24 views
Is it true that $\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k^2} = \frac{\pi^2}{6}$ ?
in General College Maths by Silver Status (25.1k points) | 24 views

1 Answer

0 like 0 dislike
T1=1

T2= 1/2

T3= 1/9

T4= 1/16

Hence as n tends to infinity Tn gets very small, and summation of terms approaches as certain value.
by Diamond (79.3k points)

Related questions

0 like 0 dislike
1 answer
0 like 0 dislike
0 answers
Welcome to MathsGee Open Question and Answer Bank, a platform, where you can ask Maths and Science questions and receive answers from other members of the community. Help is always 100% FREE!
MathsGee QnA is the knowledge-sharing community where millions of students and experts put their heads together to crack their toughest homework questions.

Enter your email address: