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Is it true that $\lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k^2} = \frac{\pi^2}{6}$ ?
in General College Maths by Silver Status (25.1k points) | 24 views

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T2= 1/2

T3= 1/9

T4= 1/16

Hence as n tends to infinity Tn gets very small, and summation of terms approaches as certain value.
by Diamond (79.3k points)

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